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2 NL 6 Max flopped set on monotone board

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2 NL 6 Max flopped set on monotone board - Thu Jun 28, 2012, 12:39 PM
(#1)
TheAwesomeNW's Avatar
Since: Mar 2012
Posts: 474
Hi ppl, I've been on a bad run of cards these 3 days, affecting the way I played as well. This is one of the hands I have overplayed.

It was a table with TAGish players except for the BB who is 54/0 after 27 hands, and villain july is 33/5 after 21 hands at the BTN.



On the flop, he min-raised my cbet. I put him on a flush draw or any 2 pairs. Due to bad run of cards, I didn't want any more suckouts, thus put him all in. But I believe the shove was totally overplayed.

Would you have taken the line of flatting him OOP or raise him here to extract maximum value? I believed he could have called with any two pairs or set. Flush draw I'm not too sure.

If raise, how much to raise?

If flat, how do we know where we stand? Then do we fire out the second barrel on the turn?

Last edited by TheAwesomeNW; Thu Jun 28, 2012 at 12:41 PM..
 
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Sat Jun 30, 2012, 12:02 AM
(#2)
TheLangolier's Avatar
Since: Jun 2010
Posts: 13,512
(Head Trainer)
Hi T,

Although we have little reads with only 20 hands, the early impression is loose passive, and when this type of player min-raises us it's bad news. Loose-passives just don't ever do this with a draw. Our set is too strong to fold, as he may do this with aces up or a smaller set, and we have outs to draw out on a flush or straight, but I'm not thrilled. I will generally just call, and reevaluate the turn, unless I have better reads and can identify a different good line. I definitely don't like jamming all in unless I now the guy will call off the rest with 2 pair or worse, which may not be the case here (way too unknown to have an idea about this yet)

Dave


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Sat Jun 30, 2012, 10:59 AM
(#3)
TheAwesomeNW's Avatar
Since: Mar 2012
Posts: 474
Thanks Dave. Actually he held Qs4s which means he flopped the nut flush.

I've read somewhere that the probability of flopping a flush is 0.84%.

1) Thus, whenever facing a monotonous board, one with 3 same suited cards, is it generally ok to put the villain on a flush draw instead of assuming that he already flopped the flush? Because 0.84% is really rare, so in most situations, a set would be most likely ahead of the villain who min raise us?

2) For situations like this hand where he already flopped the nut flush, is it ok to say that it's ok to lose this hand because there's no way to avoid it? And it's about minimising the losses?
 

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